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Daily-static-mcqs 23 Jul 2024
Q1:
Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the native princely states were given the option to join India or Pakistan or remain independent. 2. In 1950, the Indian Constitution classified the states of the Indian Union into four parts – Part A, Part B, Part C and Part D. 3. In 1950, 549 princely states acceded to India, and the remaining 3 princely states (Hyderabad, Junagadh and Kashmir) were later acceded to India. How many of the statements given above are correct?
A: Only one
B: Only two
C: All three
D: None
Answer: C
Explanation:
At the time of independence, there were two categories of political units in India – British provinces (under the rule of the British government) and native princely states (under the rule of the king but affiliated with the British monarchy). Under the Indian Independence Act (1947), two independent and separate sovereign countries, India and Pakistan, were created and the princely states were given three options - join India, join Pakistan or remain independent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In 1950, the Constitution classified the states of the Indian Union into four types – Part A, Part B, Part C and Part D. These were 29 in total. Part A contained those states which were ruled by Governors in British India. Part B had royal rule with 9 state legislatures, part C had the rule of the Chief Commissioner of British India and some had royal rule. Part C contained the centralized administration of the states (10 in total). Andaman and Nicobar Islands were kept alone as a Part D state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In 1950, there were 552 princely states within the geographical boundaries of India. 549 joined India and the remaining three princely states (Hyderabad, Junagadh and Kashmir) refused to join India. Although after some time these were also merged into India - Hyderabad was included in India through police action, Junagadh through public opinion and Kashmir through the Instrument of Accession. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q2:
Consider the following statements: How many of the above statements are correct about the Citizenship Act, 1955?
A: Only one
B: Only two
C: Only three
D: All four
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Citizenship Act (1955) provides for acquisition and termination after the coming into force of the Constitution. This Act has been amended four times so far. These amendments are as follows:
Hence option (c) is correct.
Q3:
Why was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights? 1. It was believed that this right is against the principles of social justice and equality. 2. It was believed that this right benefited only the rich people. 3. It was believed that this right was an obstacle to development. How many of the statements given above are correct?
A: Only one
B: Only two
C: All three
D: None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Property rights could give the rich the means to exploit the poor. This could hamper social mobility and increase poverty and inequality. Poor people often did not own property, so they did not benefit from this right. This right gave wealthy people the right to protect their property, regardless of how they acquired it. This could make it difficult for the government to acquire land for development projects. It could also hamper private sector investment.
The right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978. It has been made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution. This means that the government can subject property rights to reasonable restrictions. Hence, all three statements are correct.
Q4:
On which of the following subjects, amendments require the approval of two-thirds majority of the Parliament as well as the legislatures of at least half the states? 1. Any subject of the Seventh Schedule 2. Article-73 3. Article-241 4. Article-368 How many of the above are correct?
A: Only one
B: Only two
C: Only three
D: All four
Answer: D
Explanation:
To amend certain provisions of the Indian Constitution, two-thirds majority of the Parliament as well as the approval of the legislatures of at least half the states are required. These provisions include:
The Seventh Schedule contains the distribution of powers between the Union and the States of India. To amend any subject in this Schedule, special majority and approval of the States is required.
Article 73 provides some special powers to the President during an emergency. To amend this article, special majority and approval of the states is required.
Article 241 defines the jurisdiction of the High Courts. To amend this article, special majority and approval of the states is required.
Article 368 determines the procedure for amending the Constitution. To amend this article, special majority and approval of the states is required.
Modifying these special provisions requires a special majority and the approval of the States because these provisions are the foundation of the federal structure of India, affect the rights and interests of the States and are important for all citizens of the country.
Q5:
The first amendment of the Constitution which was passed in 1951 was related to which of the following?
A: From Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
B: From the protection of agricultural and agricultural land related reforms done in some states.
C: From the security of the country
D: From the security of the Prime Minister
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first amendment to the Constitution was passed on 18 June 1951. This amendment was mainly brought to protect the agricultural and agricultural-land related reforms done by some states.
This amendment added Article 31A, which protects agricultural and agricultural-land related reforms made by some states from judicial review. Article 31B was added, which protects Zamindari Abolition Acts made by certain states from judicial review. Article 19(1)(f) was amended, preventing courts from challenging the validity of laws restricting property rights based on agricultural and agricultural-land reforms.
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