Current Affairs MCQs Quiz for UPSC, IAS, UPPSC/UPPCS, MPPSC. BPSC, RPSC & All State PSC Exams
Date: 8 December 2023
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Citizenship in India:
1. A person of full age and capacity, being a citizen of India, has the authority to make a declaration renouncing their Indian citizenship.
2. Indian citizenship automatically ceases when a citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country.
3. Termination of Indian citizenship occurs if the resident has been detained for two years in any nation within five years of enrollment or naturalization
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Citizenship Act of 1955 outlines three methods for losing citizenship, irrespective of whether it was acquired under the Citizenship Act or earlier laws. These methods include Termination, Renunciation, and Deprivation. Through Renunciation, any overseas Indian citizen of full age (18 and above) can formally declare the renouncement of their Indian citizenship, leading to the cessation of their status as an Indian resident. In case such a declaration is made during a conflict involving India, the registration process may be delayed by the Federation. Hence statement 1 is correct. Through Termination, if an Indian resident consciously and voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another nation, their Indian citizenship automatically ceases. It's important to note that this condition does not apply in the context of a war in which India is involved. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Federation has established mandatory grounds for the termination of Indian citizenship. These grounds include acquiring citizenship through conspiracy, demonstrating disloyalty to the Indian Constitution, engaging in illegal collaboration or association with the enemy during a war, facing two-year detention in any foreign nation within five years of enrollment or naturalization, and maintaining continuous ordinary residence outside of India for seven consecutive years. In such instances, the Federation is empowered to effect the termination of Indian citizenship. Hence statement 3 is correct.
2. Consider the following statements about the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence:
1. India is not a founding member of the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI).
2. The Theme of the GPAI Summit 2023 is “Advancing Responsible AI in Private-Sector Applications”
3. This collaborative AI initiative involving various stakeholders seeks to address the gap between AI theory and practice.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Launched in June 2020 with fifteen members, the Global Partnership in Artificial Intelligence is the realization of an idea conceived within the G7.
This multi-stakeholder initiative aims to bridge the gap between AI theory and practice by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities.
By uniting experts from science, industry, civil society, governments, international bodies, and academia, the initiative fosters international cooperation in artificial technology.
The founding members include Australia, Canada, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, Mexico, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Singapore, Slovenia, the UK, the US, and the EU. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 3 is correct.
The Research Symposium, themed "Advancing Responsible AI in Public-Sector Applications," aims to unite global AI experts, academia, and practitioners. It’s an opportunity to present actionable research fostering responsible AI, aligning with the broader goals of GPAI. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
3. Hatti Community is found in which States?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh and Uttrakhand
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A Hatti community organization in Himachal Pradesh has recently announced a protest march scheduled for December 16. This close-knit community resides near the Trans-Giri area of Himachal Pradesh and Jaunsar Bawar in Uttarakhand, with the Tons River, a tributary of the Yamuna, serving as the border between the two states. Named after their traditional occupation of selling homegrown vegetables, crops, and meat, the Hattis are divided into two categories: Bhat and Khash, holding higher status, and Badhois, with lower status. This community in Himachal Pradesh's Sirmour district was officially added to the Scheduled Tribes (ST) list in 2022 after a prolonged demand for ST status since 1967. Hence Correct Answer is B.
4. Consider the following statements about the PM-DevINE.
(a) A scheme that aims to address development gaps in the North Eastern Region.
(b) A scheme that aims to provide affordable air travel for the North East region.
(c) A scheme that aims to address road connectivity in the North Eastern Region.
(d) A scheme that aims to address insurgency in the North Eastern Region.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East Region (PM-DevINE) is a scheme designed to tackle development gaps in the North Eastern Region (NER). The NER comprises eight states: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura. This initiative, unveiled in the Union Budget 2022-23, functions as a Central Sector Scheme, receiving full funding (100%) from the central government to ensure comprehensive development in the region. Hence Correct Answer is A.
5. The doctrine of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution was established under which judgment.
(a) Golaknath Case (1967)
(b) Minerva Mills Case (1980)
(c) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
(d) AK Gopalan Case (1950)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court ruled that the power of the parliament to amend the constitution was limited by the constitution. Hence the parliament cannot exercise this limited power to grant itself unlimited power. The ruling struck down clauses 4 and 5 of the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 enacted during the Emergency imposed by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
In the Golaknath Case, the Supreme Court ruling emphasized that Parliament does not possess the authority to amend the Constitution unilaterally. Instead, the power to amend lies with the constituent assembly, as stipulated in Article 368.
The pivotal 1950 AK Gopalan Case established a significant precedent by ruling that Parliament could no longer make amendments to the constitution, a power it previously held. This decision, influenced by articles 13, 19, 21, and 22 under the Prevention Act, restricted Parliament's authority to amend the constitution.
The Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973 marked a landmark in the Supreme Court of India, establishing the doctrine of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
Hence Correct Answer is C.
