Current Affairs MCQs Quiz for UPSC, IAS, UPPSC/UPPCS, MPPSC. BPSC, RPSC & All State PSC Exams
Date: 27 November 2023
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Mission:
1. The Union government will now call the existing Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres 'Ayushman Arogya Mandir'.
2. Implementing agency is National Health Authority (NHA) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
3. Beneficiaries for the scheme are picked up from the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) of 2011.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Union government will now call the existing Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres 'Ayushman Arogya Mandir' with the tagline 'Arogyam Parmam Dhanam.'
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The programme is part of the Indian government's National Health Policy and is means-tested. It was launched in September 2018 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. That ministry later established the National Health Authority as an organization to administer the program. It is a centrally sponsored scheme and is jointly funded by both the union government and the states. By offering services to 50 crore (500 million) people it is the world's largest government sponsored healthcare program.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
It extends health coverage to 10 crore households or 50 crore Indians, offering a substantial cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year for medical treatment. This coverage extends to both public and private hospitals that are empaneled under the scheme. Additionally, the program facilitates cashless payment and paperless recordkeeping at the hospital or doctor's office. Eligibility for benefits is determined using criteria from the Socio Economic and Caste Census 2011.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
2. Consider the following statements about the Special Category Status to States:
1. Presently, 10 states have special category status in India.
2. Central government covers 90% of state expenditures for centrally sponsored programs, with the remaining 10% as a zero-interest loan for Special Category States.
3. Uttrakhand, as the newest state, received this status post its separation from UttarPradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (A)
Explanation:Recognizing that some regions in the country were historically disadvantaged in contrast to the others, the 5th Finance Commission in 1969 introduced the concept of Special Category Status. During the 4th 5-Year plan (1969-1974), the states of Assam, Nagaland, and Jammu & Kashmir were given special status. Five more states included between 1974 and 1979 (Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tripura). Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram added in 1990. Uttarakhand granted special status in 2001. Telangana, as the newest state, received this status post its separation from Andhra Pradesh. Presently, 11 states have special category status: Assam, Nagaland, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Uttarakhand, and Telangana.
After the dissolution of the Planning Commission and the subsequent constitution of the NITI-Aayog, the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission have been implemented, meaning that the Gadgil formula-based grants have been discontinued. But this has been compensated by the increase in devolution from the divisible pool to all states from 32% to 42%. The Centre says that the 14th Finance Commission effectively removed the concept of Special Category Status after its recommendations were accepted in 2015.
Hence statement 1 and Statement 3 are incorrect.
The central government supports states by covering 90% of their program expenditures, with the remaining 10% as a zero-interest loan. States receive preferential treatment in funding applications and enjoy excise tax reductions to attract businesses. They are allocated a substantial 30% share of the federal budget, with access to debt reduction programs. Tax exemptions incentivize investments, and states receive preference in central funds for development projects. Flexibility to carry over unused funds allows for effective financial planning. Hence statement 2 is correct.
3. Consider the following statements regarding Chavittu Nadakam:
1. Chavittu Nadakam is a folk art form closely tied to Kerala's Latin Christian heritage.
2. Its presentation bears a striking resemblance to European opera, showcasing a rich blend of cultural influences.
3. The performers wear glittering Indian Traditional costumes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Chavittu Nadakam is a Latin Christian folk art form originating in Cochin, Kerala, believed to have developed after the arrival of Portuguese missionaries. While its costumes show European influence, historical evidence suggests Kerala had prior Western connections. The use of Tamil and Malayalam in the playback songs and dialogue suggests its indigenous origin. The musical play, rooted in Christian mythology, features Greco-Roman-style dress and stage decoration. This artistic expression is characterized by captivating make-up, intricate costumes, and precise gestures. Its presentation bears a striking resemblance to European opera, showcasing a rich blend of cultural influences. Historical debates persist regarding its creation, with some attributing it to the cultural void sensed by the Portuguese upon their arrival. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
4. What material is not suitable for the accumulation of electric charge in response to mechanical stress, a phenomenon known as piezoelectricity?
(A) DNA
(B) Quartz
(C) Lead zirconate titanate
(D) Dolomite
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Piezoelectricity refers to the phenomenon where certain materials, such as quartz or ceramics like lead zirconate titanate (PZT), and biological matter such as bone, DNA, and various proteins produce electric charges in response to mechanical stress. Hence Correct Answer is D.
5. Consider the following statements regarding the Cosmic Rays:
1. Cosmic rays were discovered by Victor Hess, for which he was awarded the 1936 Nobel Prize in Physics.
2. They originate from various sources such as supernovae, active galactic nuclei and other energetic cosmic events.
3. Cosmic rays or astroparticles are high-energy particles or clusters of particles that move through space at nearly the speed of light.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Cosmic rays were discovered by Victor Hess in 1912 in balloon experiments, for which he was awarded the 1936 Nobel Prize in Physics. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Cosmic rays are high-energy particles, primarily composed of protons and atomic nuclei that travel through space at nearly the speed of light. They originate from various sources such as supernovae, active galactic nuclei and other energetic cosmic events Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct.
