Current Affairs MCQs Quiz for UPSC, IAS, UPPSC/UPPCS, MPPSC. BPSC, RPSC & All State PSC Exams
Date: 27 May 2022
Q1. Consider the following statements :
1. India is the fourth-largest producer of electricity in the
world with an installed capacity of about 400 GW.
2. The per-capita annual power consumption of India is greater than the world
average power consumption but far less than that of developed countries.
3. India’s installed renewable energy capacity has increased to more than 40% of
the country’s total capacity.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
- India is the third-largest producer of electricity in the world with an installed capacity of about 400 GW. Hence, the first statement is incorrect.
- In pre-pandemic 2019-20, India’s per-capita, annual power consumption was 1,208 kWh as against the world average of 3,260 kWh and far less than 10,000-15,000 kWh for developed countries. Hence, the second statement is also incorrect.
- Notwithstanding the recent emphasis, renewable energy accounts for only 39 percent (50 GW Solar, 46 GW Hydro, and 40 GW wind) of the country’s total capacity (as of 31st December 2021). Hence, the third statement is also incorrect.
- The installed solar energy capacity has increased by 17 times in the last 7 years and stands at 49.5 GW.
- India has achieved its NDC target with a total non-fossil-based installed energy capacity of 158.17 GW which is 40.2% of the total installed electricity capacity.
Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. A pregnancy may be terminated up to 24 weeks based on the opinion of one
doctor only.
2. More than half (53%) of abortions in India are performed in the private
sector.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither of these
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
- Opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.
- Opinion of two RMPs for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of gestation.
- The recent round of the National Family Health Survey 2019-2021, shows that 3% of all pregnancies in India result in abortion. More than half (53%) of abortions in India are performed in the private sector, whereas only 20% are performed in the public sector — partly because public facilities often lack abortion services. More than a quarter of abortions (27%) are performed by the woman herself at home
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Indus Water Treaty (IWT):
1. It was signed in 1947 at the time of Independence.
2. It was brokered by the World Bank.
3. Any Dispute regarding IWT directly goes to the Court of Arbitration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
- Indus Waters Treaty, treaty, signed on September 19, 1960, between India and Pakistan and brokered by the World Bank.
- The IWT also provides a three-step dispute resolution mechanism, under which “questions” on both sides can be resolved at the Permanent Commission, or can also be taken up at the inter-government level.
- In case of unresolved questions or “differences” between the countries on water-sharing, such as technical differences, either side can approach the World Bank to appoint a Neutral Expert (NE) to come to a decision.
- And eventually, if either party is not satisfied with the NE’s decision or in case of “disputes” in the interpretation and extent of the treaty, matters can be referred to a Court of Arbitration.
Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. Chief Justice has the sole power to decide the seat of supreme court.
2. Article 130 of the constitution deals with seat of supreme court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
- It also empowers the Chief Justice to appoint another location as the Supreme Court's seat.
- He or she can only make a decision in this respect with the President's consent.
Q5. Consider the following statements about Electronic Waste Management rules:
1. Consumer goods companies and makers of electronics goods
have to ensure at least 60% of their electronic waste is collected and recycled
by 2023.
2. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the chief entity that coordinates
the trade of EPR certificates.
3. The extended producer responsibility (EPR) certificates certify the quantity
of e-waste collected and recycled in a particular year.
Which of the above statements is/are Not correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
- Consumer goods companies and makers of electronics goods have to ensure at least 60% of their electronic waste is collected and recycled by 2023 with targets to increase them to 70% and 80% in 2024 and 2025 respectively.
- The rules bring into effect a system of trading in certificates, akin to carbon credits, that will allow companies to temporarily bridge shortfalls.
- The extended producer responsibility (EPR) certificates certify the quantity of e-waste collected and recycled in a particular year by a company and an organisation may sell surplus quantities to another company to help it meet its obligations.
- Companies will have to register on an online portal and specify their annual production and e-waste collection targets.
- Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the chief entity that coordinates the trade of EPR certificates.
