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Daily-mcqs 25 Apr 2024

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 25 Apr 2024

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements about Article 244A and the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

1. Article 244A empowers the creation of an autonomous state with its own legislature or council of ministers within specific tribal areas of Assam.

2. The Sixth Schedule provides greater autonomy to tribal areas compared to Article 244A.

3. Both Article 244A and the Sixth Schedule apply to the administration of tribal areas in all northeastern states.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A: Only one

B: Only two

C: All three

D: None

Answer: A

Explanation:

Candidates in Assam's Diphu Lok Sabha constituency, where voting is on April 26, vow to implement Article 244(A) for an autonomous 'state within a state'. Article 244(A) permits the establishment of an 'autonomous state' within certain tribal areas of Assam. It envisions the formation of a local legislature or Council of Ministers, or both, for local administration. It was inserted into the Constitution through the Twenty-second Constitution Amendment Act of 1969. Hence, statement 1 is correct.


Article 244(A) grants tribal areas more autonomous powers than the Sixth Schedule, particularly in controlling law and order. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution governs the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, safeguarding tribal rights. This provision is outlined in Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution. In Assam, it encompasses the hill districts of Dima Hasao, Karbi Anglong, West Karbi and the Bodo Territorial Region. The Governor holds the authority to alter the areas, names or boundaries of autonomous districts within this schedule. While the executive powers of the Union extend to scheduled areas under the Fifth Schedule, sixth schedule areas remain under the state's executive authority. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.


 


                            

Q2:

Consider the following statements about Schengen Visa:

1. It is a new visa regime introduced by the European Commission for Indian nationals.

2. It allows travelers to visit the Schengen area, which comprises 27 European countries, for short stays of up to 90 days within a 180-day period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 Only

B: 2 Only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Recently, the European Commission has introduced a new visa "cascade" regime for Indian nationals seeking Schengen visas, allowing for more straightforward access to multiple entry visas with extended validity periods. A Schengen visa is an entry permit that allows travelers to enter the Schengen area, which is made up of 27 European countries. The visa can be used for short stays of up to 90 days within any 180-day period, for activities such as tourism, business, visiting family, medical treatment, studies, training placements and volunteer activities. Hence, statements 1 and 2 both are correct.


                            

Q3:

With reference to the Pulicat Lake, consider the following statements:

1. It is the largest brackish water lagoon in India.

2. It is located on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A: 1 Only

B: 2 Only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Tamil Nadu government is considering denotifying a large area of the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary, as discussed in the 77th meeting of the Standing Committee of National Board for Wildlife. Pulicat Lake is a brackish water lagoon on the Coromandel Coast of India, located on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.  It is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India after Chilika Lake. The lake is separated from the Bay of Bengal by Sriharikota Island, home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre. Major inflows to the lake include Arani, Kalangi and Swarnamukhi rivers, while the Buckingham Canal serves as a navigation channel. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect while statement 2 is correct.


                            

Q4:

Consider the following statements about the Chloride Mass Balance Method (CMB):

1. It is a technique used to estimate groundwater recharge rates by analyzing chloride content in precipitation and groundwater.

2. This method operates on the principle of chloride's conservative behaviour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 Only

B: 2 Only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Recently, a study across Australia utilized 200,000 groundwater chloride measurements to estimate recharge rates using the chloride mass balance (CMB) method. The Chloride Mass Balance (CMB) method is a quantitative technique employed for estimating groundwater recharge rates by analysing the chloride content present in both precipitation and groundwater samples. Hence, statement 1 is correct.


This method operates on the principle of chloride's conservative behaviour within the hydrological cycle, assuming that chloride input through precipitation is equal to its output via groundwater discharge. It considers various factors influencing groundwater recharge rates, including climatic variables such as rainfall distribution and evapo-transpiration, alongside vegetation-related factors like vegetation health and density. Hence, statement 2 is correct.


                            

Q5:

With reference to Snake Venoms, consider the following statements:

1. They are a highly toxic saliva.

2. They can also be beneficial medical tools.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 Only

B: 2 Only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Recently, scientists revolutionized antivenom production by substituting animal involvement with human antibodies, circumventing the outdated method of injecting large animals with snake venoms. Snake venoms are a highly toxic saliva that snakes use for defense and to immobilize and digest their prey. Two primary families of venomous snakes, elapids (including cobras, kraits, and mambas) and viperids (such as rattlesnakes and adders), produce venoms containing distinct toxic components. Snake venoms can also be beneficial medical tools as they contain many components with valuable pharmacological actions, including: Neurotoxicity, Myotoxicity, Cytotoxicity, Hemotoxicity and Antimicrobial activity. Hence, statements 1 and 2 both are correct.